Internal energy is a measure of the distribution of translation, rotation, and vibration in the molecules. A liquid has far less in translational and rotational energy per molecule.
As proof, consider that
$$\tilde{U}_{vap} - \tilde{U}_{liq} = \Delta_{vap}\tilde{U} = \Delta_{vap}\tilde{H} - \Delta_{vap}(p\tilde{V})$$
For an ideal gas, $\Delta_{vap}(p\tilde{V}) = RT_{vap}/M$ (SI units J/kg). Since vaporization is endothermic, the first term is positive. The term $RT_{vap}$ is typically smaller. For nitrogen with $T_{vap} \approx 77$ K and $\Delta_{vap}\tilde{H} \approx 6$ kJ/mol (NIST Webook), one has this in units of J/mol.
$$\Delta_{vap}\bar{U} \approx 6000 - 8.3(77) \approx 5400$$
You have to provide this energy to vaporize the liquid. You loose this internal energy when you condense the vapor.
To compare with what you have, take only the gas and condense it to liquid. The internal energy will be less by 9.3 kJ just for the 46 g as below.
$$\Delta_{cond}{U} \approx (46/28)(-5.4) = -9.3$$
This is for a transformation entirely at 1 bar pressure. Changing pressure on an ideal gas does not change its internal energy. It does change however change enthalpy, so the $\Delta(pV)$ term has to be done differently. Basically, you have to do the equivalent of vaporization at 4 bar and then an expansion to 1 bar. The specific difference in your case between liquid at 4 bar and gas at 1 bar is about -4.1 kJ/mol. Without deeper consultation, I might suspect the difference is from the loss at the expansion of the gas since, for real gases or liquids, $U(V,T)$, meaning ultimately also that $\tilde{U}(p,T)$.
So at the end, we have no surprise to find that a liquid has a lower internal energy than a gas even though the liquid has a higher mass than the gas. The difference has no reference to how the tank was emptied, since internal energy is a state property/function.